From: Fred W. Helenius Subject: Re: Primes as sums of squares? Date: Wed, 03 May 2000 19:34:19 -0400 Newsgroups: sci.math Summary: [missing] "Jorell Hernandez" wrote: >http://www.jwanless.freeserve.co.uk/4kplus1.htm That's not a proof. Among other things, you will notice that he never uses the hypothesis that p == 1 (mod 4); the first "therefore" does not follow unless you assume what he's trying to prove; and the "WLOG" involves a considerable loss of generality. [On the other hand, the second proof (that the representation is unique) does not seem to have any fatal flaws.] The only proof I can find online is Zagier's famous one-sentence proof, at http://www.math.unh.edu/~dvf/532/Zagier . But anyone who can work through its opacity has probably already seen a more conventional proof in an abstract algebra course. -- Fred W. Helenius