From: Per Erik Manne Newsgroups: sci.math Subject: Re: finitely additive measures on R, R^2 Date: Mon, 02 Nov 1998 13:02:37 +0100 theodore hwa wrote: > The Banach-Tarski paradox in dimensions >=3 implies that for n>=3 it's > impossible to define a finitely additive measure on all subsets of R^n > that's invariant under translations and rotations. But for n=1,2 no such > paradox exists and I understand that it's possible, perhaps using AC, to > define such a measure in dimensions 1 and 2. It will not be countably > additive. How does one construct such a measure? Are there any good > references on this sort of thing? > Stan Wagon: The Banach-Tarski Paradox (Cambridge University Press 1985). Part II is about finitely additive measures, or the nonexistance of paradoxial decompositions. I never read this, being more interested in Part I. A quick glance seems to indicate that given a group G which acts on a set X, one tries to construct a finitely additive measure on G, defined on all subsets, and then to transfer it to X. If such a finitely additive measure (with some extra conditions) exists on G, then G is called amenable. In theorem 10.4 one proves with the aid of AC that all abelian groups are amenable, and that the class of amenable groups is closed under certain operations (subgroups, quotients, etc.). It follows that all solvable groups are amenable, and since the isometry groups of R^1 and R^2 are solvable, we are done (almost). -- Bergen, Per Manne ============================================================================== From: israel@math.ubc.ca (Robert Israel) Newsgroups: sci.math Subject: Re: finitely additive measures on R, R^2 Date: 2 Nov 1998 21:41:05 GMT In article <71bb0i$ast$1@nntp.Stanford.EDU>, hwatheod@leland.Stanford.EDU (theodore hwa) writes: |> The Banach-Tarski paradox in dimensions >=3 implies that for n>=3 it's |> impossible to define a finitely additive measure on all subsets of R^n |> that's invariant under translations and rotations. But for n=1,2 no such |> paradox exists and I understand that it's possible, perhaps using AC, to |> define such a measure in dimensions 1 and 2. It will not be countably |> additive. How does one construct such a measure? Are there any good |> references on this sort of thing? Try "Invariant Means on Topological Groups" by Frederick P. Greenleaf, Van Nostrand 1969. Here's a slightly more "explicit" construction than Per Erik Manne's, in the case n=1. We want a linear functional phi on the space B(R) of bounded real-valued functions on R such that 1) phi(1) = 1 2) if f >= 0 then phi(f) >= 0 3) phi is invariant under translations T_x(f)(t) = f(t-x) 4) phi is invariant under reflection r(f)(t)=f(-t) Lemma: For any f_1, ..., f_n in B(R) and x_1, ..., x_n in R, let g = sum_{i=1}^n (f_i - T_{x_i} f_i). Then inf_{x in R} g(x) <= 0. Proof: Consider S = the sum of g(sum_i j_i x_i) where each j_i ranges over the integers 1 to p. Express it in terms of the f_i, and all terms cancel except for those involving f_i(sum_k j_k x_k) where j_i = 0 or p. Thus |S| <= K p^(n-1) for some K. Since there are p^n j's, there is some x = sum_i j_i x_i with g(x) <= K/p. Take p -> infinity to get the result. Now let M be the closed span of the functions f - T_x f (f in B(R), x in R) and U = { g in B(R): inf_{x in R} g(x) > 0 }. By one of the forms of the Hahn-Banach Theorem there is a linear functional phi on B(R) such that phi = 0 on the linear subspace M and phi > 0 on the convex set U, and we can normalize phi so phi(1) = 1. It is then easy to see that (1) to (3) are satisfied. To get (4) in addition, we replace phi by psi(f) = (phi(f) + phi(r(f)))/2. To define the measure mu, take mu(A) = phi(I_A) where I_A is the indicator function of A (I_A(x) = 1 if x in A, 0 otherwise). Robert Israel israel@math.ubc.ca Department of Mathematics http://www.math.ubc.ca/~israel University of British Columbia Vancouver, BC, Canada V6T 1Z2